https://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-8591443/Family-six-raffle-1-15million-four-bedroom-barn-conversion-secret-bar.html

I know that raffling off houses instead of selling them in the usual way has become a thing but reading this article in the DM about a couple in Yorkshire selling their house by selling 300,000 x £5 tickets, I wonder how this works in practice. House is supposed to be "worth" £1.15 million. Except that it didn't find  buyer. So, they received £1.5m by raffling it. The article states that "after stamp duty etc." they will have made enough to give a donation to a local charity of £50k.

I must confess that, despite having bought and sold a couple of houses and being not unfamiliar with the the Town and Country Planning Act 1990 etc. and development under it, I think the last actual "conveyancing" I did was on the  LPC. So, am I missing something?

I am aware that one's primary dwelling is exempt from CGT. However, the house has been sold to the holder of a ticket for £5. Not 300,000 owners of the beneficial interest, Anyway any stamp duty is paid by the buyer (unless there is some arrangement for the seller to refund the purchaser's SDLT.) Moreover, the sale price (£5!) is below the SDLT threshold (unless there is some deemed HMRC value - I don't know much about asset sales at below market value.)

So, my question is would the £1,499,995 received for the other 299,999 tickets be treated by the HMRC as income and be taxed accordingly? That would be at 45 percent over  £150,000.

Is there some special regime for raffles for profit?